He also states:
Buchanan Economics of Earmarked Taxes (1963) wrote:Earmarking is defined as the practice of designating or dedicating specific public revenues to the financing of specific public services
This would strictly include tax choice, though his clarification seems to indicate it doesn't. Given that he analyzes a simplified tax choice system, that further confuses things. It's at least ambiguous, so I suppose I'll drop the point.
Infactum wrote:Since economists do not agree, then we conclude that opportunity cost is not proven to ensure efficient allocation of resources (regardless of market). This logic only applies as of 1963, of course. It is possible that that statement was proven since then.
So find a paper that substantiates your specific claim that opportunity costs do not ensure the efficient allocation of resources.
You do want me to prove a negative.... My claim is not that opportunity costs* do not ensure efficient allocation in all cases (though I do believe this). My claim is that it is not proven that opportunity costs ensure efficient allocation in all cases. The latter is not something on which anyone is going to write a paper, anymore than I could present you with an astronomy paper showing that it is not proven that there is a teacup in the Oort cloud (indeed, I could not present you with an astronomy paper proving there is not a teacup in the Oort cloud either). It is hard or impossible to prove negatives without exhausting (often infinite) possibilities. The only way to do so is by way of counterexample, which are not always easy to construct. The burden of proof is on the positive claim for this reason.
So, since I am skeptical of your claim, give me proof.
*Note, this terminology bothers me - you claim is that systems which take advantage of maximizing peoples' ability to compare opportunity cost maximizes efficiency, not the opportunity costs themselves, correct?
Edit: Ahh well, I did find something:Tax-earmarking and separate school financingJournal of Public Economics. Volume 54, Issue 1, May 1994, Pages 51–63
Marc Bilodeau wrote:Edit2: quote redacted in deference to permissions. It was, indeed, provided by my library. It claims that in some large fraction of cases, tax choice results in poor overall public utility.
That's from the abstract. I hope you can access that; I am on a university campus, and it is not always obvious which papers are public. The beginning of section 3 is the where he discusses his results on the equilibria.
Infactum wrote:I'll admit, I had only read the first page since I dislike making more internet accounts. The paper was, however, disappointing in it's narrow applicability.
His argument, in The Economics of Earmarked Taxes (1963), was, essentially, that if you make enough assumptions, then earmarking is optimal. To do prove earmarking is optimal, he explicitly rejects strategic allocation by assuming that the good provided by a public service is directly proportional to the amount of funding that service receives (p.460). He himself admits (as I would expect most any self respecting economist to do) that these are just assumptions and the real world may behave far differently from his idealization. He especially focuses on the political nature of the actor as far from his ideal actor and the "decision making cost." See section V for his cautions on the applicability of the results. Note especially where he says that the violation of these assumptions might mean that a traditional allocation system could be better. I will note that all 3 of these things have been brought up in one way or another in this thread by me or others.
You missed the point regarding bundles and preference revelation...
No, I saw it. That was (part of) how he proved earmarking was optimal given his assumptions. I even believe his proof is valid. I don't believe his proof is sound. His paper is still irrelevant to the real world without the assumptions being satisfied.
Your argument is largely centered around the idea that taxpayers will have an incentive to conceal their true preferences if they could choose where their taxes go. Buchanan argued against this in his paper...Under most real-world taxing institutions, the tax price per unit at which collective goods are made available to the individual will depend, at least to some degree, on his own behavior. This element is not, however, important under the major tax institutions such as the personal income tax, the general sales tax, or the real property tax. With such structures, the individual may, by changing his private behavior, modify the tax base (and thus the tax price per unit of collective goods he utilizes), but he need not have any incentive to conceal his "true" preferences for public goods. - James M. Buchanan, The Economics of Earmarked Taxes
This substantiates my claim that taxpayers would allocate their taxes according to their preferences. If you claim otherwise, then the responsibility is on you to find any papers that substantiate your claim. Just like if you claim that opportunity costs do not ensure the efficient allocation of resources, then the responsibility is on you to find any papers that substantiate your claim.
An I agree that, in the context of his paper, he is right. He makes the following assumptions, however:
Buchanan Economics of Earmarked Taxes (1963) wrote:Collective goods are assumed to be produced at constant marginal costs
Buchanan Economics of Earmarked Taxes (1963) wrote:The "tax price per unit" made available to him is invariant over quantity.
I read this as his assumption that public goods are "linear."
If both of these were true, I could not construct prisoner's dilemmas and chicken scenarios anywhere near as easily (or possibly at all). Buchanan knows this, as he states these assumptions are to remove the "element of strategic bargaining." Both of these are not necessarily true, however. Producing twice as many highways or a highway that costs twice as much is not likely to provide twice the benefit of 1 reasonably priced highway over none. Unless you disagree with this, highway funding produces a nonlinear return.
Infactum wrote:Opportunity cost is the difference in value derived from one choice versus the best of the choices not picked.
You derive x amount of value from replying to this thread (1st best option) and y amount of value from reading your book (2nd best option). The opportunity cost of replying to this thread is not x - y...it's simply y. It's the value that you would have derived from reading your book.
Fair enough, both maximize at the same point, and your definition fits with the one on wiki. I see no reason to quibble.
Infactum wrote:I honestly cannot find a discussion of this concept with relation to multiplayer games, but that is quite important, as the opportunity cost of defecting in the prisoner's dilemma is dependent on the other player's action. This prevents the analysis from extending to collectively funded public goods IMO. My claim, however isn't that strong.
[...]
1) "If you're not willing to cooperate with your coconspirator, then clearly you'd prefer to sit in jail for 3 years instead of 1." Is that a true statement in your opinion? Can you see this as a valid analogy?
[...]
Opportunity cost is not well defined in (some) multiplayer games. That was the point of the second sentence. You can't tell me my opportunity cost for defecting in the prisoner's dilemma/Chicken/etc without information on another actor. This means that, even if I were a homo economicus, I would have insufficient information to determine the magnitude of my opportunity cost. How do you expect poor little normal me to do so? If I cannot determine the magnitude of my opportunity cost, I cannot determine how much I am sacrificing. If I cannot determine how much I am sacrificing, then I cannot compare the value of different options. If I cannot compare the value of different options, I cannot choose the one I prefer. Do you disagree with anything in that logic chain?
Imagine a river right next to a soup kitchen. When you arrive at the soup kitchen to volunteer you notice that there's a group of people picking up trash along the river. How is the prisoner's dilemma relevant/applicable?
I'm not certain I see a way, do you? I could shoehorn it in if I made wild enough assumptions. There's a reason I put "(some)" in front of multiplayer.
Infactum wrote:My original guess was that you were going to claim that the private sector was more complex, and therefore people ought to have an easier time deciding what was of value to them in the public sector. After tracing the thread of conversation back a bit, it seems more likely that you intend to show that (government provided?) public goods tend to compete with each other far less, so it is much more important to choose one over the other. Was I even close?
Not really. My point was for you to explain why there's such a greater diversity/variety of goods in the private sector. What do you attribute this to?
Partially, I attribute it to the fact that public goods serve many more people than private goods (usually), so they are, by their nature, less dividable. I suspect competition and innovation are what drives the private sector, while it is hard to change the services offered by the government (though not all of these are "public goods" by the real definition).
Clearly you believe that voting adequately allows people to communicate their true preferences/values. So please substantiate your claim.
I would disagree with that. I believe that the system of voting we have now would likely produce a more utilitarian society than implementing your system. I don't beleive that communicating preferences and values is the one surefire way to ensure an efficient market. Note that I am not claiming proof of this; I am not an economist, and I cannot find any economist who has analyzed anything resembling your system (aside from Buchanan, who makes assumptions he knows are inapplicable).
There is only one difference between a bad economist and a good one: the bad economist confines himself to the visible effect; the good economist takes into account both the effect that can be seen and those effects that must be foreseen.
There are many reasons to dislike leonine contracts, but they don't create problems for the "perfect market," I'll agree. Also, do you really believe yourself to be in a position to judge the quality of work by people with Ph.D.s in econ?
So you feel secure placing our future in the hands of 300 congresspeople and their entourage of experts. But I would feel infinitely more secure if everybody could receive the benefit of their accurate estimates of future value.
I might as well, if I agreed that tax choice resulted in accurate estimates of future value.
Right now in this thread there are numerous people looking for the bugs in pragmatarianism. Clearly they are finding bugs. Maybe the bugs are imagined rather than real, but they should be allowed to allocate their resources accordingly. This is exactly how the public sector should work as well. Let many people look for the bugs in public programs and allocate their taxes accordingly.
So you think people would allocate congress an emergency discretionary fund of some sort? Maybe that would help. It still suffers from being a very public good among many less public goods.
Infactum wrote:Earlier you said that how much I sacrifice is the same as how much I valued something. If this is true, then no value is created in trades, as I am sacrificing something to receive something of equal value (and so is "Trusty"). Do you believe value is created in trades?
People only sacrifice something if they suspect that what they receive in return will be more valuable than what they have to give up. Otherwise they'll simply suffer a loss. Given that nobody intentionally wants to suffer a loss, the more that somebody is willing to sacrifice, the more they value what they are trading for.
So people value the thing they sacrifice for more than the thing they sacrifice? That contradicts your definition of value as willingness to sacrifice.
Infactum wrote:The exsistence of a costless exit is not even obvious. "Cost," can only be defined relative to other things (as you assert when talking about oppurtunity cost). Therefore, the existence and placement of a zero (i.e. "costless") is at best arbitrary.
There's a difference between internal "barriers" and external barriers. Costless exit just means that I'm not preventing you in any way shape or form from leaving this discussion. With our current system, it's very costly for a pacifist not to fund the DoD. They can either avoid making enough money to pay taxes or risk going to jail or try to move to a country where they aren't forced to fund war.
Ahh, you mean "low cost," or "negligible cost" exit. Leaving the thread may save me time, but it may also leave me with a bad taste in my mouth. That isn't costless to my mind, but it is negligible cost. I'm more concerned with Bob above - he lacks a costless exit (drowning and going bankrupt are both high costs).
If you want me to address your unrealistic scenario, then please provide a detailed and credible explanation of how we arrive at your scenario.
Step 1: Implement pragmatarianism
Step 2: ?
Step 3: Millions starve to death
Certainly.
1) Note that people on SNAP*, as a rule, do not make enough money before taxes to feed themselves**. They receive more money from the government than they pay in.
2) So we implement pragmatarianism. The people eligible for SNAP will allocate most or all of their tax burden (if any) to the SNAP program for obvious reasons. After this, the program is less well funded, relative to the tax burden, than it is now (from (1)).
3) The SNAP program provides no obvious good to anyone not on it, so we hope the rest of the tax base sees the benefit of preventing people from getting desperately hungry enough to begin committing crime. If an insufficient amount of the tax base realizes this, or enough of the tax base lives far away from where any such crime would be committed (and thus have no interest in preventing it, except at maybe another level of abstraction), then the program's only hope of staying funded is altruism.
4) If none of the conditions in (3) are met, then the program will stay underfunded, which means some fraction of the people it funds will be unable to buy food. Therefore, they will starve/die of exposure/possibly turn to crime and be jailed.
I'm not sure how likely this scenario is, but I don't think it's that crazy. It certainly is not impossible. If it happened, would you say the market valued those people more dead than alive?
*I just want to note that SNAP is an excellent example of a government provided private good and is not technically a public good.
**This, the way I understand your argument, already means the market values they way they use resources less than the resource cost of food to feed them.
***This is neglecting the effects I discussed about game theory, but crime prevention is a public good and would be subject to such problems in my estimation.
Infactum wrote:I can't be certain that P doesn't lead to pragmatarianism. In principle, I could if I could show some kind of contradiction, but I would prefer things be better defined before attempting that again. It may not lead to anywhere interesting or useful on it's own. That's just the nature of logic. You still have to rigorously show it leads to pragmatarianism; logic isn't a Bayesian analysis.
You're defending the current system, and you agree that values are subjective (P). Please give me an example rigorously showing that P leads to our current system. Or acknowledge that you hold my arguments to a far higher standard than you hold your own.
You are claiming proof, I am not. I do see benefits to our current system that would not exist in pragmatarianism. I tried to show these to you and you have rejected them. I am not certain that the loss these benefits out way anythings gained from switching to pragmatarianism, but I think it likely. If you wish to call that a defense, go ahead, but it is nowhere near the level of certainty you claim.
If you were just suggesting that some sector of government provided services be transitioned to a tax choice model, I may or may not agree with you, but it would at least be reasonable. You instead are suggesting that pragmatarianism is better than every other conceivable system due to opportunity cost being the only valuable perspective for maximizing total value. Can you not see how this differs in strength from my claim?