Now try defining that in a meaningful way
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by Fionnuala_Saoirse » Tue Mar 15, 2011 7:12 am

by Risottia » Tue Mar 15, 2011 7:49 am
L3 Communications wrote:Risottia wrote:He was insane enough to plot and enact various genocides, but not insane enough to excuse him for doing that.
But anti-Semite prejudice was rampant in his era, and he simply combined the common racism of his time with the common scientific beliefs of eugenics. This is the age of Kiev, Kielce, and Lwow after all. You can't really say he wasn't influenced by the political and scientific establishments of early 20th century Europe.
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