Okay first of all the indemnities enforced on France in the Franco-Prussian war was nowhere close to the indemnities forced on Germany (which was also, by the virtue of being the last one standing, forced to pay indemnities on behalf of its allies too) in the First Great War, even then France declared a Sovereign Default in the reparations of that war (though it did pay it in 5 years' time). That said, Germany could -and probably would- absolutely pay the reparations in record time if a select number of events (i.e. the Great Depression) hadn't happened without even forcing its citizens to pay the taxes. The actual problems with the Treaty of Versailles were not about the reparation (which everyone accepted was necessary and the norm after any war).Jack Thomas Lang wrote:The Grand Duchy Of Nova Capile wrote:-snip
I'm not fond of quote spirals, so I'll respond by broadly answering your points. Firstly, I don't believe the Anglo-Americans had malicious intent by renegotiating reparations to be more forgiving, I just think that it was misguided, especially with the benefit of hindsight. They gave Germany a grace period to build up its industry, while the reliance on foreign loans resulted in an economic crisis and slide into radicalism. So the initial goal of helping keep Germany stable and integrated into the European economy failed miserably.
As for whether Germany could pay reparations, I'm afraid we're at an impasse. I subscribe to the view of economists and historians such as Etienne Mantoux and Sally Marks. Even A.J.P. Taylor, who accused the treaty of Versailles of having no moral validity, agreed that Mantoux had debunked Keyne's arguments that Germany could not afford reparations. And most modern historians generally agree, regardless of their opinions on reparations as being payable or not, that Germany's immediate economic troubles were not caused by reparations, but war debt and generous social benefits for veterans. Austria, for example, suffered similar hyperinflation without accompanying reparations (because the peacemakers realised Austria couldn't afford them).
As for France, they were able to pay nearly as much as Germany (from 1919-32) in two years, with an economy twice as small. These reparations were intended to cripple France for thirty years, but the French Republic borrowed from its citizens and introduced necessary reforms to get the job done. While I concede that paying reparations would have been politically suicidal for the German government, I don't think that's a legitimate excuse not to pay. If you owe a debt, you can't just refuse to pay it because your family would get pissed off. But of course, without a clear mechanism for enforcement, Germany got off rather lightly. That mistake was not made the second time.