The East Marches wrote:On the topic of the grammar section, I have lots of interesting things that can explain it better for a non-English speaker.
Non-English speaker in the 98th percentile of the verbal GRE and a 5/5 for the writing part, but meh.
But it sounds like you have particular post-war writings in mind. Care to post details? It's hard to just argue in hypotheticals, and hell, maybe I'll learn something.
Again, I sincerely believe you are wrong. As an American, I find the European contempt for the rule of law (as evident your joke contract law system) and willingness to abrogate their rights maddening. I agree that they would be surprised. I disagree that they would upturn or compromise on their ideals.
I get that you really don't like whatever happened with that contract. But the idea that Europe has contempt for the rule of law (France especially, of all places) needs backing up. In a separate thread.
Anyway, I am not saying they would change the intention of the bill of rights or the constitution. But I think they would recognise that this intention could be better served by updated sentences on that paper. Sure, maybe some would be so against making any changes at all (slippery slope or whatever), but given that they explicitly allowed for amendments to be made I don't think they'd be that dogmatic about it. And given that, the question goes back to what the intention is in the first place.


