Natapoc wrote:Ostroeuropa wrote:
Then why do feminists keep spreading statistics that utilize sexist definitions of rape to show women have it worse and deny equal rape stats? It makes everything you just said nothing more than a face saving maneuver.
Because the best evidence suggests that rape rates are not equal. There is some evidence that disrupts that viewpoint but based on the best evidence I've seen, I don't think I can accept that claim.
I can say that some men are raped and that's horrible. Even if only one man had ever been raped in all of history that would be one man too many!
It's sad that it's probably greater than 1 in 6 (according to this FEMINIST orgonization) boys have been sexually violated, for example.
https://rainn.org/get-information/types ... al-assault
"researchers have found that 1 in 6 men have been through abusive sexual experiences before even reaching adulthood."
Yes here is another feminist group trying to spread attention to the plight of men who are raped.
Since when is RAINN a feminist group?
They also claim that "Male college aged students are 78% more likely than nonstudents to be a victim of rape or sexual assault.14
"
Now yes you'll go ahead and hate them because they also use an official government statistic that:
"About 3% of American men — or 1 in 33 — have experienced an attempted or completed rape in their lifetime."
That's because that statistic is based on a sexist definition of rape using a survey from 17 fucking years ago (incidentally - the same organization still uses a similar sexist definition of rape, even to the latest surveys up to 2011, which you now object to my use of). I don't really hate them. That would imply they've done so deliberately. I think it's laziness and submission to feminist propaganda which is easier.
And I know you will accuse them of trying to minimize male rape by using it... But I disagree. They are plainly stating contradictory statistics because we simply don't have very good data on male rape.
Our data is conflicting, but this is largely because the definition of rape has been specifically crafted in a number of studies to exclude male victims of female rape - much like the 1998 CDC study that RAINN cites in that instance.
Even data the rates that women are raped are full of controversy. This is not an easy thing to measure.
It is not, but you've just shown again that you're ok with minimizing it. "Well, the data is contradictory so we don't know."
The thing is, when data is conflicting with women, you use the highest possible known figure, and even then, if memory serves, you were the one who asserted, contradicting all evidence, that 1 in 2 women are probably rape victims. Meanwhile, when the data is conflicting with men, you always go for the lowest possible figures.
Why? Because you are sexist.




