Natapoc wrote:It's not illogical at all.
It's a question, not a statement. I did not say "the courts are run by men, therefore they can't be bias against men". If I'd intended to say that it's what I would have said.
Instead I'm trying to see if anyone will tell me the reason why a primarily male dominated institution would be so bias against men.
Think of it like this. If I tell you: Why does 1+1=2? Does it mean I believe that 1+1 does not equal 2? No of course not. That's not how questions work.
Frequently, the implicit assumption is made that men would conspire to, or otherwise act to, help their gender specifically. This is generally not accurate.
The courts are still running Male Hyperagency (all the agency that got shifted off of women had to go somewhere, so men soak up more social blame), Male Disposability, and the classic Protect 'n' Provide gender role.
It's sexist, and mostly originated with the traditionalists, but the feminist movement depends on all of those to get resources and action from men.