Considering the law ITSELF states the opposite of what you're arguing, you're lying.
Neo Art wrote:Des-Bal wrote:
No you fucking haven't. You may be confused because I've asked you to multiple times but every time I ask you bring up a general wikipedia article about illegal transactions or a section of the law that really doesn't address who has legal claim to the money.
Wait, that's really ALL you want? Proof of my original assertion that he has no grounds to claim the return of money paid for illegal services? Fineif a court will not, on grounds of public policy, aid a promisee by enforcing the promise, it will not aid him by granting him restitution for performance that he has rendered in return for the unenforceable promise. Neither will it aid the promisor by allowing a claim in restitution for performance that he has rendered under the unenforceable promise. It will simply leave both parties as it finds them, even though this may result in one of them retaining a benefit that he has received as a result of the transaction
Rest.2d Contracts, § 197, com. a, p. 71. The first part of the bold is clear, the law will not allow restitution. The second line, bolded and underlined, is EXPLICITY, the law will leave the parties AS IT FINDS THEM, even if one benefits while the other did not.
He handed money to her as part of the illegal transaction. That is how the law found them. Her with money, him without sex. The law will neither require her to provide sex, nor require her to return the money.
He GAVE her the money, yes he EXPECTED something in return but what he EXPECTED was not something he was legally authorized to contract for. All he did, as a matter of law, was give her money.


