Cill Airne wrote:Menassa wrote:I was talking about Matthew 1:22-23.
In parallel with Isaiah 7:14... and it did not change... a footnote is not change.
The word has changed, yes. Languages evolve, they change over time. If I were to say I offered a holocaust to God I would be received with some very negative looks. The words you are questioning are perfectly fine in translation - but over time as their meaning has changed so too has the overall meaning of the section - leading to the need of footnotes or an overall updated translation such as the New Douay-Rheims translation, the NKJV, &c.
Or would you say we speak the same exact way the people translating the Bible would have.
What's the oldest Manuscript of Matthew that we have?
It does not say: Young Woman.