Seattile wrote:Ceannairceach wrote:And? The secession certainly was influenced by slavery. It is my opinion that if they wanted to secede, they should have outlawed slavery.
Most people during that time weather from the North or South were more loyal to their state than the United States. People like Robert E. Lee did not agree with slavery or secession but they were loyal to their states. And slavery was not a goal to end the civil war until Lincoln issued the Emancipation Proclamation that only freed the slaves from the CSA and not the whole US because the four slave states that remained in the Union would of joined the CSA if it affected them. The slave states that stayed in the union were Maryland, Delaware, Missouri, and Kentucky, and slavery was more of a Northen reason to raise moral to fight the Confederacy. Plus Lincoln said himself if he didn't have to free a signal slave in the south to win the war he wouldn't of freed them until after... if at all. And the Emancipation Proclamation was really the only reason that European nations like England or France didn't send troops or more supplies to the south. It was more of poiltical thing than a moral thing.
Why didn't the British and the French send troops and supplies in 1861 or 1862? The Emancipation Proclamation was issued in late 1862 and went into effect on January 1, 1863. Plenty of time for those nations to intervene, don't you know, and yet they didn't. Can you explain that?



You know what? Because I pity you, I'll cite my source. 
The burden of proof would be on anyone seeking to enforce an oral contract to prove the existence of the contract.