Sanctaria wrote:No,
I referred to it as "Polish fair use"; it's actually just called "fair use".
No, I'm pretty sure it's distinguished as "Polish fair use," considering it's not reflective of the actual fair use doctrine. Maybe in Poland it's just called "fair use." But in an international context, calling it simply "fair use" is mistaken. That leads one to believe that it's the
actual fair use doctrine as originated in the United States.
Sanctaria wrote:Just because the US has "x" doctrine, it doesn't mean it is the
definitive doctrine.
And this is where you're not being reasonable. The United States
invented fair use. It is the
original fair use. When you say 'fair use,' you're talking about the doctrine that exists
in the United States. Poland has its own version, yes, but you can't call it fair use, because it's not the equivalent of the actual fair use doctrine. Full stop. That's it. Seriously, go to your library and pull out a book on fair use. It will describe a bunch of United States legal precedents. It's quite simple, and I'm not going to continue to argue this.